damYankee
Captain
- Joined
- Aug 12, 2011
Do the southern states survive today?Does the south survive without slavery? If so what is the transition that maintains it economy?
Hmmmm.
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Do the southern states survive today?Does the south survive without slavery? If so what is the transition that maintains it economy?
I think you make a good point, The South did generate wealth, but only for the plantation owners and those industries that supported it.The point I'm grappling with here is that Shelby Foote's insistence that the South never had a chance in that war - that the North effectively fought with one hand tied behind its back and that all it had to do was bring out that other hand - rather tends to make the war seem more of a tragically futile or pointless affair. If, on the other hand, the South possessed the attributes necessary to win its fight - and it's not beyond the realms of possibility that it did, in my opinion- then that war was more worthwhile. Indeed, is it legitimate to suggest that it needed to be fought, in that case ? I wanted to integrate slavery into the equation, since that was a defining difference between the two sides. If the South had the wherewithal to adapt its most notorious institution to expand and generate wealth, then it was going to be better endowed to fight with a chance of winning.
Perhaps a later secession could have led to a shorter war, but I'm not sure by how much. I'm assuming that the Federal government wouldn't have drastically built it's military between 1861 and 1868, so there still would be a build up time for the combatants. It seems that you and @The Ninth Ohio are angling towards what could be an interesting "what if" thread.Which rather works as grist to the mill for my suggestions. What a shame the war wasn't delayed until 1868 ! A quicker, cleaner and cheaper affair, rather than the protracted attritional grind that it was several years earlier.
Then, I suppose, the South felt that it was the " Now or Never@ moment in 1861.
Sharecropping comes to mind. That's assuming they employed slaves in the conflict, and that such would have meant the abolition of slavery rather than just the emancipation of those that fought and their families.Does the south survive without slavery? If so what is the transition that maintains it economy?
No I do not believe that the two nations could live in perfect harmony. There were just too nany flash points. Still was one bloody war better than 5 or 6 wars over the next 150 years? Hard to say. How bloody and destructive would these 5 or more wars have been? An all out war between the two in the 1940s would have involved much more destructive weapons.Its difficult to conceive of how the two nations, both aggressive and expantionist, could lived side by side for any considerable time.
One nation repelled international and internal immigration and had lost part of its population growth to other parts of the US. The other belligerent was probably the fastest growing modern nation in the world. By 1868 the US could have crushed the Confederacy in 9 months.
One subsequent war would have been enough. The US advances in communication and transportation were accelerating.No I do not believe that the two nations could live in perfect harmony. There were just too nany flash points. Still was one bloody war better than 5 or 6 wars over the next 150 years? Hard to say. How bloody and destructive would these 5 or more wars have been? An all out war between the two in the 1940s would have involved much more destructive weapons.
I'm not particularly interested in what ifs, I was actually asking not about postwar, but the period between the AWI and ACW. The argument is that the southern states never would have joined the Union in the first place if slavery were not protected. But then the other is that the north and the south diverged at rates where by the later third of the 19th century, a war would have only lasted a few months due to the differences in population and technology.Perhaps a later secession could have led to a shorter war, but I'm not sure by how much. I'm assuming that the Federal government wouldn't have drastically built it's military between 1861 and 1868, so there still would be a build up time for the combatants. It seems that you and @The Ninth Ohio are angling towards what could be an interesting "what if" thread.
During the Mexican/US war the southern plantation economy needed the help of the northern states. Any secession before the conclusion of that war would have been not in their short term interest. After the imperialistic war against Mexico, which was a shameful episode in US history, the secessionists would have had a good chance. But Clay and Webster were working on delay and old John Calhoun was not healthy enough to lead a secessionist revolt. Cooperative Democrats won the next two presidential elections. IF the time was propitious, the cotton south was not motivated to secede until a Presidential candidate who opposed the extension of slavery was elected without any southern EC votes.I'm not particularly interested in what ifs, I was actually asking not about postwar, but the period between the AWI and ACW. The argument is that the southern states never would have joined the Union in the first place if slavery were not protected. But then the other is that the north and the south diverged at rates where by the later third of the 19th century, a war would have only lasted a few months due to the differences in population and technology.
So my question was simply, was there a point between 1790 and 1860 where the southern states never had a greater chance for a successful gambit toward secession? Was 1861 the zenith of their hopes? Or was it earlier, before international relations, northern immigration and westward expansion began to sour the view on slavery? 1810? 1830? 1850?
I don't know enough about prewar American politics to offer an opinion, but thought it might be a good thought experiment.
The Civil War did not create American industrialization, immigration, or technological modernity. Those forces were already in motion. However, the war decisively resolved political questions—sovereignty, slavery, and federal authority—that otherwise might have fragmented, delayed, or violently reshaped those developments. Whether the costs were "worth it" is ultimately a moral judgment rather than a historical fact.How could the answer be, Yes, all the bloodshed and money spent was worth the benefits that flowed from the surrender at Appomattox and reunification?
Frist the technical basis for transforming life in the US already existed before the Civil War. The telegraph system was rapidly consolidating before the Civil War and the railroad network in the northern states was boosted by the war. Very little that happened during the Civil War disturbed these two physical changes that created the continental nation.
The US grew before, during, and after the Civil War, based on voluntary immigration and foreign investment. Cotton production was an important factor. But separating the cotton revenue from the California Gold Rush, the railroad boom, and the sudden increase in immigration from Ireland and the German states seems to me to be impossible.
Did the Civil War increase immigration and foreign investment above the level that would have happened anyway? There's no way to tell. All that can be detected is that by 1863 immigration picked up. And from 1865 to 1874 it accelerated. Its difficult to imagine that level of immigration continuing if the US had been locked into an arms race with a nation maintaining slavery. The military expenses would have been a drag on the US and the Confederacy. One, or both nations would have needed to maintain conscription.
It seems improbable that foreign and domestic investment in infrastructure would have equaled the amount in real history if the US had agreed to a period or of separation. It would have taken many years for the railroad to climb the ridges in California and cross the empty regions of Wyoming and Utah. Peace made acceleration of that important communication link expeditious.
All that I can really detect is that when slavery was abolished Missouri benefitted from the population boom that swept over Illinois, Wisconsin, Minnesota, Iowa and Missouri. Texas benefitted from the abolition of slavery at first. But in the 1870s explosive growth occurred in Texas, even before oil exploration began. After the Civil War, Texas demonstrated that cotton production did not require slavery. Instead railroads and a deep water port cut the cost of marketing cotton and made it competitive.
Different commentators will have different opinions. As always proceed carefully under the watchful eye of @bdtex and our other gracious moderators.
As you wrote, comparing what happened historically to what might have happened if there had been no war is impossible. One of the difficulties is that preventing the war in 1861 doesn't solve the problems that existed.The Civil War did not create American industrialization, immigration, or technological modernity. Those forces were already in motion. However, the war decisively resolved political questions—sovereignty, slavery, and federal authority—that otherwise might have fragmented, delayed, or violently reshaped those developments. Whether the costs were "worth it" is ultimately a moral judgment rather than a historical fact.
1850 is the last point I think for unilateral secession to succeed.I'm not particularly interested in what ifs, I was actually asking not about postwar, but the period between the AWI and ACW. The argument is that the southern states never would have joined the Union in the first place if slavery were not protected. But then the other is that the north and the south diverged at rates where by the later third of the 19th century, a war would have only lasted a few months due to the differences in population and technology.
So my question was simply, was there a point between 1790 and 1860 where the southern states never had a greater chance for a successful gambit toward secession? Was 1861 the zenith of their hopes? Or was it earlier, before international relations, northern immigration and westward expansion began to sour the view on slavery? 1810? 1830? 1850?
I don't know enough about prewar American politics to offer an opinion, but thought it might be a good thought experiment.
Prince Rupert best commander of the civil war gets my vote how about you?Civil wars do not always end satisfactorally. Britain's English civil war (1642-49) didn't, neither did Spains's (1936-39), France's less military one (1789 - 1794) - or Russia's (1917-22). Sure, in 400 years time you can look back and draw conclusions, but 160 years is a little ... soon. Yes, some civil wars are called 'revolutions' instead. Same thing - just glorified by the winners. There are often more than just two sides but only one winner. The American Civil War was not a 'revolution' (social class war).
For example:
Britain's English civil war removed the monarch and many of the ruling elite and substituted, imposed, a rather lacklustre administration - The Protectorate - very Puritan and no Parliament to speak of. It lasted until 1660 - ten years of doom and despondancy - until the 'Great Protector' (Cromwell) died and the Prince of Wales returned from Holland to become Charles II - to much general celebration. What is often forgotten is what followed Charles II's death. His brother, James II took over and began imposing an absolute monarchy (no say for the people and peers - like France where he lived during the Protectrate). Thus followed the Glorious Revolution (1688) where the king was deposed and a new Royal family accepted by most peers, then Parliament passed The Bill of Rights(1689) which is basically our constitution. (Magna Carta was really for peers only)
One of the problems with understanding these results is understanding BOTH sides of the conflict. It is hard for a Northerner to understand what the Southerner was thinking, their state of mind and what they were fighting for - and vice versa. The culture and train of thought is still there. That is why a distance of time is necessary - or by someone not involved at all). In the English Civil War it was the non-conformists v the aristocracy and Church and ended with the aristocracy - peers (dukes, earls, etc) - bringing back the monarchy and Church, then keeping them in check. That statement could not be made before, say 1800 as the results of the civil war were still felt by the descendants of those who had fought - or fled.
Of those who had fought, only the top leaders were likely to have known the details and philosophy of WHY they were fighting. The regiments and soldiers rarely had any views on the idea apart from loyaly to their leaders or country/state.
King Cotton was dethroned. The oversized power of the deep south Democrats was ruined. Comparing it to deposing a monarch has some merit.Civil wars do not always end satisfactorally. Britain's English civil war (1642-49) didn't, neither did Spains's (1936-39), France's less military one (1789 - 1794) - or Russia's (1917-22). Sure, in 400 years time you can look back and draw conclusions, but 160 years is a little ... soon. Yes, some civil wars are called 'revolutions' instead. Same thing - just glorified by the winners. There are often more than just two sides but only one winner. The American Civil War was not a 'revolution' (social class war).
For example:
Britain's English civil war removed the monarch and many of the ruling elite and substituted, imposed, a rather lacklustre administration - The Protectorate - very Puritan and no Parliament to speak of. It lasted until 1660 - ten years of doom and despondancy - until the 'Great Protector' (Cromwell) died and the Prince of Wales returned from Holland to become Charles II - to much general celebration. What is often forgotten is what followed Charles II's death. His brother, James II took over and began imposing an absolute monarchy (no say for the people and peers - like France where he lived during the Protectrate). Thus followed the Glorious Revolution (1688) where the king was deposed and a new Royal family accepted by most peers, then Parliament passed The Bill of Rights(1689) which is basically our constitution. (Magna Carta was really for peers only)
One of the problems with understanding these results is understanding BOTH sides of the conflict. It is hard for a Northerner to understand what the Southerner was thinking, their state of mind and what they were fighting for - and vice versa. The culture and train of thought is still there. That is why a distance of time is necessary - or by someone not involved at all). In the English Civil War it was the non-conformists v the aristocracy and Church and ended with the aristocracy - peers (dukes, earls, etc) - bringing back the monarchy and Church, then keeping them in check. That statement could not be made before, say 1800 as the results of the civil war were still felt by the descendants of those who had fought - or fled.
Of those who had fought, only the top leaders were likely to have known the details and philosophy of WHY they were fighting. The regiments and soldiers rarely had any views on the idea apart from loyaly to their leaders or country/state.