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- Aug 25, 2012
During my research today on Michigan's reaction to the "Fugitive Slave Act" and the State's Personal Liberty Laws"I had a question. Does the U.S. Constitution guaranty the right of a person to own slaves?
If so, then how can a State become a "Free State". Would not the citizens of that State have the Constitutional Right to own slaves regardless of any laws the State passed? Even if somehow a State can pass a law that no citizen of their State could own slaves, what if some one from the South moved to a "Free State"? It would seem like they could keep and use their slaves for as long as they wanted to as long as they did not become a citizen of the Free State. In the end if there is a Constitutional Right to own slaves, then the concept of a "Free State" would have little meaning.
If so, then how can a State become a "Free State". Would not the citizens of that State have the Constitutional Right to own slaves regardless of any laws the State passed? Even if somehow a State can pass a law that no citizen of their State could own slaves, what if some one from the South moved to a "Free State"? It would seem like they could keep and use their slaves for as long as they wanted to as long as they did not become a citizen of the Free State. In the end if there is a Constitutional Right to own slaves, then the concept of a "Free State" would have little meaning.
Bringing the