What gave Lincoln the right to make an unconstitutional demand on the seceding Southern States?

CSA Today

Brev. Brig. Gen'l
Honored Fallen Comrade
Joined
Dec 3, 2011
Location
Laurinburg NC
They solved the key problem, no representation. Remember the American Revolution itself was a build up event, attempts were made to achieve representation in parliament (and to have their representation already established in the colonies officially recognized).

War was a last resort since they had no representation, no vote, and no political avenue. There was no need for such an option after the United States was formed since it offered representation and political avenues.

To reverse what you said, if they deemed a violent war to unilaterally secede as an obvious and acceptable avenue, why did they not include it? The Constitution is quite detailed, includes all sorts of avenues and options, it gives guidelines for how people and their States can voice and interact. Yet apparently they didn't think it important to include among those many things an official policy on unilateral secession.

Since when have colonies, territories had the right to representation in parliaments, congresses etc? Had the Crown gave meaningful parliamentary representation to the American colonies it would have had to grant the same privileges to all its colonies. Can you imagine the chaos that would have followed had they done so?

If the original Founding Fathers didn't think it important enough to include a constitutional clause what pray tell gave Abraham Lincoln and his fellow travelers the right to make an unconstitutional demand on the seceding Southern States?
 
Back
Top